I think that what has alot of people wrapped around the axle is the "intent" crime regarding the intent of the purchaser at the time of filling out the 4473 (and the ability or lack thereof to prove intent)
Under a strict interpretation it could be argued that a firearm collector/investor who buys and sells rare/collectible guns with the intent of turning a profit would really need to be a dealer to stay legit. Ridiculous example: if it was my intent to buy up every colt python in existence in CA and then slowly sell them off at 1000% profit (since I now own the entire supply) would make me a straw purchaser no matter how slowly I sold them off since I never had the intent of buying the firearm for personal consumption/use. My intent was always to resell later at a higher price.
This intent issue might be where some LEOs walk a fine line in using their ability to purchase non-roster pistols and then turn around and resell them at a markup later. Sure, its completely legal to buy a gun decide you don't like it and sell it ppt at fair market value... however do that too many times per year it might raise a red flag (and be pretty hard to explain why you bought and sold the same make and model of handgun more than once).
In general "intent" crime can difficult to understand because it is not necessarily about the end result of the events that actually took place but the mindset of the folks involved when the events took place. While intent may be difficult to prove, I think what some people might be getting riled up about is that IF falsely accused of a straw purchase, your intent is equally difficult to defend.
Scenario A: Johnny wants to buy an offlist handgun. Goes to his buddy Joe who is a cop and says, hey I really want an XDm but I can't get one in CA without going thru the SSE hoops. Joe says, I can get you one no-prob since I am roster exempt, just pay me back sometime after we ppt to you. Joe buys the XDm and in the process commits a crime because his sole intent of purchasing the gun is to resell to Johnny thus lying on the 4473.
Scenario B: Johnny laments to his cop buddy Joe about how it sucks that he can't easily get an XDm in CA. Joe remembers how Johnny saved his bacon when serving overseas together and decides to use his roster exempt status and buy Johnny an XDm as a gift. Johnny is floored and tries to pay Joe back, but Joe refuses.
Scenario C: Johnny reads the latest version of Guns and Ammo and is all jazzed about the new XDm only to findout he cannot get it CA due to the roster. Joe, had purchased an XDm a couple of months ago but found he really like the SW M&P over the XDm. The XDm has been sitting in the safe for months. Joe decides to sell the XDm to Johnny via ppt to make room in the safe for future purchases.
In all three scenarios, Joe and Johnny are non-prohibited persons. In all three scenarios, the net result is the same; Johnny gets an XDm from Joe (who purchased it with his roster exempt status). Scenario A is illegal due to the purchase with the intent to resell regardless of $$ between Joe and Johnny changes hands prior to or after Joe executes the purchase. Scenarios B and C are legit.
Its all really fine lines between legal and illegal. The gift scenario is difficult because, gifts are rarely one-way expressions of gratitude. In the above scenario, if Johnny reciprocates the gesture and gives Joe a gift of roughly the same value as the XDm at a later date, could an overzealous prosecutor accuse Joe of a being a straw purchaser? If so, how long should the recipient of a gifted firearm wait until they reciprocate a gift back to the original purchaser?
Another example that might fall into the gray zone is couples where one spouse works and the other is a stay at home spouse. My wife does not have an income of her own; rather we decided it was more financially beneficial for her to stay home and raise the kids. I give her a monthly allowance into her personal checking account to cover daily expenses. If she decides to use that money to buy a firearm for me as a gift, would that technically make her a straw purchaser since the "source of the $$-me" is considered the actual buyer?
Related but maybe slightly off topic, how does a non-person entity like a corporation or NFA-trust purchase a firearm. By definition, the person buying the firearm is acting as an agent of the corp/trust... or does that fall into a completely different realm of paperwork instead of a 4473?
A parallel idea of intent is the 12020 threads regarding clubs, etc. Carrying a baseball bat and glove in the trunk of your car for the weekly pick up game after work is perfectly legal. Carrying a baseball bat in your trunk "for protection in case you get mugged" is a felony. Same idea here with the straw purchase and intent as buyer of the firearm.
Interesting thread so far,
drc
Under a strict interpretation it could be argued that a firearm collector/investor who buys and sells rare/collectible guns with the intent of turning a profit would really need to be a dealer to stay legit. Ridiculous example: if it was my intent to buy up every colt python in existence in CA and then slowly sell them off at 1000% profit (since I now own the entire supply) would make me a straw purchaser no matter how slowly I sold them off since I never had the intent of buying the firearm for personal consumption/use. My intent was always to resell later at a higher price.
This intent issue might be where some LEOs walk a fine line in using their ability to purchase non-roster pistols and then turn around and resell them at a markup later. Sure, its completely legal to buy a gun decide you don't like it and sell it ppt at fair market value... however do that too many times per year it might raise a red flag (and be pretty hard to explain why you bought and sold the same make and model of handgun more than once).
In general "intent" crime can difficult to understand because it is not necessarily about the end result of the events that actually took place but the mindset of the folks involved when the events took place. While intent may be difficult to prove, I think what some people might be getting riled up about is that IF falsely accused of a straw purchase, your intent is equally difficult to defend.
Scenario A: Johnny wants to buy an offlist handgun. Goes to his buddy Joe who is a cop and says, hey I really want an XDm but I can't get one in CA without going thru the SSE hoops. Joe says, I can get you one no-prob since I am roster exempt, just pay me back sometime after we ppt to you. Joe buys the XDm and in the process commits a crime because his sole intent of purchasing the gun is to resell to Johnny thus lying on the 4473.
Scenario B: Johnny laments to his cop buddy Joe about how it sucks that he can't easily get an XDm in CA. Joe remembers how Johnny saved his bacon when serving overseas together and decides to use his roster exempt status and buy Johnny an XDm as a gift. Johnny is floored and tries to pay Joe back, but Joe refuses.
Scenario C: Johnny reads the latest version of Guns and Ammo and is all jazzed about the new XDm only to findout he cannot get it CA due to the roster. Joe, had purchased an XDm a couple of months ago but found he really like the SW M&P over the XDm. The XDm has been sitting in the safe for months. Joe decides to sell the XDm to Johnny via ppt to make room in the safe for future purchases.
In all three scenarios, Joe and Johnny are non-prohibited persons. In all three scenarios, the net result is the same; Johnny gets an XDm from Joe (who purchased it with his roster exempt status). Scenario A is illegal due to the purchase with the intent to resell regardless of $$ between Joe and Johnny changes hands prior to or after Joe executes the purchase. Scenarios B and C are legit.
Its all really fine lines between legal and illegal. The gift scenario is difficult because, gifts are rarely one-way expressions of gratitude. In the above scenario, if Johnny reciprocates the gesture and gives Joe a gift of roughly the same value as the XDm at a later date, could an overzealous prosecutor accuse Joe of a being a straw purchaser? If so, how long should the recipient of a gifted firearm wait until they reciprocate a gift back to the original purchaser?
Another example that might fall into the gray zone is couples where one spouse works and the other is a stay at home spouse. My wife does not have an income of her own; rather we decided it was more financially beneficial for her to stay home and raise the kids. I give her a monthly allowance into her personal checking account to cover daily expenses. If she decides to use that money to buy a firearm for me as a gift, would that technically make her a straw purchaser since the "source of the $$-me" is considered the actual buyer?
Related but maybe slightly off topic, how does a non-person entity like a corporation or NFA-trust purchase a firearm. By definition, the person buying the firearm is acting as an agent of the corp/trust... or does that fall into a completely different realm of paperwork instead of a 4473?
A parallel idea of intent is the 12020 threads regarding clubs, etc. Carrying a baseball bat and glove in the trunk of your car for the weekly pick up game after work is perfectly legal. Carrying a baseball bat in your trunk "for protection in case you get mugged" is a felony. Same idea here with the straw purchase and intent as buyer of the firearm.
Interesting thread so far,
drc

Comment