I'm not sure if this has been discussed recently... couldn't find anything using the search function.
We often see the anti-gun argument that the framers of the Constitution did not foresee the emergence of machine guns, semi-autos, etc when they created the 2A. The argument is that since the technology did not exist at the time, these weapons were not intended to be protected by the 2A.
Why is this same line of reasoning (as incorrect as I believe it to be) ever applied by the left to their beloved media? The framers of the Constitution certainly did not foresee the current pervasiveness of the media into every aspect of modern life. Using the same anti-gn logic, couldn't it be said that modern media is not protected by the 1A and therefore may be limited by Federal and State governments in "the best interest of the public"?
Thoughts?
We often see the anti-gun argument that the framers of the Constitution did not foresee the emergence of machine guns, semi-autos, etc when they created the 2A. The argument is that since the technology did not exist at the time, these weapons were not intended to be protected by the 2A.
Why is this same line of reasoning (as incorrect as I believe it to be) ever applied by the left to their beloved media? The framers of the Constitution certainly did not foresee the current pervasiveness of the media into every aspect of modern life. Using the same anti-gn logic, couldn't it be said that modern media is not protected by the 1A and therefore may be limited by Federal and State governments in "the best interest of the public"?
Thoughts?

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