California makes it a felony/misdemeanor wobbler to CCW a handgun -- and if I understand correctly, the wobbler comes in depending on if the gun is registered to the person. (Correct me if I am wrong.)
Now for the hypothetical. Suppose the handgun is defined as an antique by virtue of being pre 1899. It's still a crime -- but, Antiques are not registered. How does that effect the application of the statute?
(Or is that one of those areas that is TBD pending some appellate case?)
Now for the hypothetical. Suppose the handgun is defined as an antique by virtue of being pre 1899. It's still a crime -- but, Antiques are not registered. How does that effect the application of the statute?
(Or is that one of those areas that is TBD pending some appellate case?)

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