Originally posted by pc198.5
A bad guy enters your house by opening the screen door. He is there against your will.
Is that considered "forcible entry" as per the quoted law? Because if not, you cannot shoot!! Why? Because for the above quoted presumption of fear to be in place, the person has to unlawfully (which I presume is handled by the fact that you verbally tell him to leave) and forcibly enter your residence.
The other question this raises is: how is "forcible entry" determined after the fact? It matters, because you can't successfully claim the above presumption if there's no evidence of "forcible entry", right?

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