Just suppose for a moment, that a large number of newly-stigmatized rifles were registered with the state as "assault weapons".
Then the state arbitrarily moves against those registered owners at some point in time.
Wouldn't the existence of a large number of so-called, "assault weapons", which had not been used in crimes, be a basis for overturning such action, since it proves, with the state's own data, that the arms were in common use for lawful purposes?
Then the state arbitrarily moves against those registered owners at some point in time.
Wouldn't the existence of a large number of so-called, "assault weapons", which had not been used in crimes, be a basis for overturning such action, since it proves, with the state's own data, that the arms were in common use for lawful purposes?
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