Why does the OP have to explain himself?
Why do we always assume if there's a hicap and an AR that someone automatically broke the law?
So the OP didn't EXPLICITLY state "my featureless AR with hi-caps that I had before 2000", that's not for us to care about.
Lets assume it's legal and drop it.
Why do we always assume if there's a hicap and an AR that someone automatically broke the law?
So the OP didn't EXPLICITLY state "my featureless AR with hi-caps that I had before 2000", that's not for us to care about.
Lets assume it's legal and drop it.



It is partly to blame for my divorce.




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