Recently I find myself having more discussions with folks who aren't exactly anti, but are open to the idea of new gun laws as a means to try and reduce violent crime. My argument is usually along the lines of existing laws being sufficient to prosecute real criminals, and most "gun control" proposals generally are designed as a means for (mostly leftist) politicians to poke the other side in the eye while claiming to do something about crime.
A topic that I used to see around here was that the laws against straw purchases generally go unenforced, particularly in CA, and particularly among populations that are seen as "marginalized" (for example very poor young women in very poor areas who make extra cash by buying guns for their prohibited acquaintances).
If true that's a pretty compelling argument, IMO, for leaving law-abiding gunowners alone. After all, why spend a bunch of taxpayer dollars trying to ban the property of the law-abiding instead of spending that money to prosecute the people who are actually providing the guns used by murderers? The problem is that everything I've heard thus far has been pretty anecdotal, and so I'm hesitant to bring it up in conversation since I can't point to much in the way of concrete data. What I have found regarding straw purchases going unprosecuted often tends to have an anti-gun bent to it, often blaming the Tiahrt amendment (which is disingenuous IMO, I don't see how the Tiahrt amendment restricts LEOs from investigating actual crimes).
So, is there any way to find out the true extent to which straw purchases go unprosecuted, even when there is evidence against purchasers?
A topic that I used to see around here was that the laws against straw purchases generally go unenforced, particularly in CA, and particularly among populations that are seen as "marginalized" (for example very poor young women in very poor areas who make extra cash by buying guns for their prohibited acquaintances).
If true that's a pretty compelling argument, IMO, for leaving law-abiding gunowners alone. After all, why spend a bunch of taxpayer dollars trying to ban the property of the law-abiding instead of spending that money to prosecute the people who are actually providing the guns used by murderers? The problem is that everything I've heard thus far has been pretty anecdotal, and so I'm hesitant to bring it up in conversation since I can't point to much in the way of concrete data. What I have found regarding straw purchases going unprosecuted often tends to have an anti-gun bent to it, often blaming the Tiahrt amendment (which is disingenuous IMO, I don't see how the Tiahrt amendment restricts LEOs from investigating actual crimes).
So, is there any way to find out the true extent to which straw purchases go unprosecuted, even when there is evidence against purchasers?

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