Quote:
Originally Posted by Quiet
Because, the CA state constitution does not have a "right to bear arms".
And at the times the laws were passed, it was not decided yet on if the Second Amendment to the US Constitution was an individual right or a state right and if it only applied to the Federal government or both the Federal government & local (state/county/city/etc) governments.
SCOTUS finally ruled that the Second Amendment was an individual right in 2007.
SCOTUS then ruled that the Second Amendment applied to both Federal and local governements in 2010.
So, CA finally got a "right to bear arms" in 2010.
This is why all those gun laws were deemed legal when they were made into law.
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Doesn't federal law supercede state law? How can a state take away our U.S. constitutional rights???
e.g.- Marijuana is "legal" now in CO and WA... but feds can, and are still still going after growers and sellers... ???