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Old 03-26-2013, 9:35 AM
Moonshine Moonshine is offline
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My understanding is this: whether a mental illness bars someone from ownership is not tied to diagnosis but behavior and court ruling. For example: someone who had ADHD or other mental diagnosis would not be disqualified from owning a firearm simply because of the diagnosis; they would require a court ruling or a determination from a physician they are a danger to themselves or others.

Without creating a list of specific illnesses you cannot bar someone based upon looking at health records. And then there are expost facto issues too. How do you handle productive law abiding members of society with no history of any issues who have a diagnosis now deemed prohibited? It was lawful for them to purchase the firearm and it was also lawful for them to possess the firearm... Does that mean a federal confiscation program needs to be mandated to remove firearms from possession from those the government now doesn't want to have them?

This is a pretty big can of works to open.
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