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Old 12-20-2012, 4:24 AM
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daveblandston6 daveblandston6 is offline
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Put this question in historical context: The purpose of the Second Amendment is to guarantee that the citizenry retains the ability to protect itself from a tyrannical government and its army. Obviously, if there are to be any restrictions on firepower, the Founding Fathers would argue that those restrictions should be placed on what the government can possess, not on what the people can possess.

Also, if the government is truly "Of the people, by the people and for the people," then why is there a division between what the government can possess and what the people can possess anyway?
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