Originally Posted by randian
In 1924 there were people who legally possessed heroin. That year, the Feds made possession of heroin a felony. Those people were not compensated for their loss.
Fast forward to 2013. There are people who legally possess a certain class of gun. If possession of those guns is made a crime, I expect they will not be compensated for their loss.
The analogy is exact. Why do you have trouble with it?
The analogy is not exact. Drug use is not a fundamental right.