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Old 01-25-2013, 4:40 PM
randian randian is offline
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Originally Posted by CBruce View Post
Because people legally own those guns right now. I seriously doubt anyone owns drugs from before they were made illegal.
In 1924 there were people who legally possessed heroin. That year, the Feds made possession of heroin a felony. Those people were not compensated for their loss.

Fast forward to 2013. There are people who legally possess a certain class of gun. If possession of those guns is made a crime, I expect they will not be compensated for their loss.

The analogy is exact. Why do you have trouble with it?
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