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View Full Version : Is there a 922r "grandfather" clause?


Afterburnt
10-03-2009, 9:04 PM
I have been looking all over for clarification and I all I find is contradicting statements. Some say pre 89 imports are exempt some say they are not. Does anyone have any definitive information?

technique
10-03-2009, 10:14 PM
No definitive information for you...but, while you're looking into it...see if you can find a case where someone has been charged with a 922(r) violation.

69Mach1
10-03-2009, 10:16 PM
Yes. Pre 1989 imported rifles are exempt from the law. They were imported with all of the prohibited features and have no US parts in them.

-hanko
10-04-2009, 9:34 AM
No definitive information for you...but, while you're looking into it...see if you can find a case where someone has been charged with a 922(r) violation.
Zip; nada; zilch ;)

Half the US parts sold to keep you in compliance with 922(r) aren't marked w/ country of origin anyway.

-hanko

B Strong
10-04-2009, 9:55 AM
I have been looking all over for clarification and I all I find is contradicting statements. Some say pre 89 imports are exempt some say they are not. Does anyone have any definitive information?

By definition, a pre-import ban firearm would be exempt from 922(r)

The only 922(r) cases I'm aware of involved firearms dealers selling pre-ban configured post-ban rifles.

Simple possession of a post-ban rifle w/ pre-ban features without the appropriate number of US made parts is not a crime, iirc.